Regarding the definition of intelligence, which of the following statements is FALSE

1. He was the first person in the history who developed and opened a school for the mentally retarded children.

a. Esquirol b. Wechsler c. Galton d. Seguin

1. He coined the term “mental test”.

a. Catell b. Thorndike c. Ebbinghouse d. Stern

1. Who first started psychological assessment in history?

a. Greeks b. Chinese c. Romans d. American

1. The beginning of the group intelligence testing movement is best associated with:

a. the military's need to screen the intellectual ability of recruits b. the need to identify the best applicant for a job c. the civil service system's need to identify qualified postal workers d. the need to identify slow learners in school

1. As argued, when was the first psychological assessment held? a. 50 BCE b. 200 BCE

c. 220 BCE d. 500 BCE

1. Who was the first person in history that defined crudely the nature of intelligence on 1575?

a. Seguin b. Itard c. Esquirol d. Huarte

1. The Chinese testing program between 1115 B. and 1905 B. is most similar to which of the following modern-day practices?

a. civil service testing b. programs designed to detect drug abuse c. college aptitude testing d. achievement testing

1. How does testing and assessment benefit society?

a. It protect the public from incompetent practitioners b. It secures proficient services for the public c. It provides a stronger ground for public upon which decisions can be made d. All of the above

1. Which scientist viewed individual differences as a source of error in experimentation? a. Wundt b. Cattell c. Witmer d. Darwin

10 among the following is NOT a principle of Standardized Test? a. Reliability b. Validity c. Test Administration, Scoring, and Interpretation d. Test Conduciveness

11 is best defined in the testing situation as: a. Ensuring total objectivity b. Arousing the examinee’s interest and cooperation c. Making special efforts to motivate those students who do not show normal interest d. Being specially friendly with the examinees

12’s psychological test was used to select proper candidate for promotion. What use of psychological test was described?

a. Classification b. Placement c. Screening d. Certification

13 type of test that uses the average performance of a group as basis for determining the cut- off score.

a. Criterion-referenced tests b. Normalized standard tests c. Linear standard tests d. Norm-referenced test

14 I administered a test in Abnormal Psychology to my students at the beginning of the school year to find out what are

the areas that need to be reviewed, I am using a/an?

a. Achievement test b. Paper and pencil test c. Diagnostic test d. Mental ability test

15 100 forced response items. The person taking the test can take as long as he or she wants to answer the questions. This is most likely a/an? a. Projective measure b. Speed test c. Power test d. Invalid test

16 did the work of Wundt differ from that of Galton, Binet, and James McKeen Cattell?

a. Wundt used standardized psychological tests b. Wundt focused on how individuals were the same rather than different c. Wundt utilized humans and not animal research participants d. Wundt focused on how individuals were different rather than the same

1. An item in the test you are constructing scored .78 in the difficulty index. This means that:

a. The item must be place in the beginning part of the test b. The item must be place in the middle part of the test c. The item must be in the later part of the test d. The item can be place anywhere in the test

c. all are recommended d. stratified sampling

27 selecting a test, what is considered to be the most important criterion?

a. The test 's reliability b. The test's validity c. The test's standardization procedure d. The test purpose

28 right to have test findings held confidential by psychologists can be found in: a. professional ethics b. case law c. all are correct d. licensing regulation

29 is Mental Status Examination (MSE)? a. Obtain information to make an accurate diagnosis b. A mean of assessing the person's current thought processes, emotions, and interpersonal qualities c. Can also provide clues to areas that may need to be addressed in follow-up sessions or outside referral d. All of the above

30 refers to the tendency to assign a higher or lower rating than justified in a rate.

a. Halo Effect b. Contrast Error c. Proximity Error d. Constant Error

31 someone can demonstrate that a psychologist did not act in a

way that any other person in the profession would have acted given similar circumstances, then the psychologist may be found liable for: a. incompetency b. fraud c. malpractice d. deception

32 records which of the following as the first personality test developed after World War I? a. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule b. The Personal Data Sheet c. Bernreuter Personality Inventory d. Mooney Problem Checklist

33 of reliability that also measures coefficient of equivalence and stability. a. Test-retest b. Alternate form c. Split-half d. Inter-rater

34 is the basic premise behind difficulty index? a. Items must be presented in an exceeding difficulty b. Items must be arranged in such a way it would ease test taking c. Items that do not distinguish between high and low scores must be removed d. Both a and b

35 of the following positions would Galton argue in favor of?

a. genius runs in families b. Darwin's theory was overrated c. environment is the most important determinant of genius d. all sperm banks should be closed

36 proposed the Psychogenic Needs and Environment Presses which argues that it is the continuity of functional forms and forces manifested through sequences of organized regnant processes and overt behavior from birth to death.

a. Harry Stack Sullivan b. Erich Fromm c. Otto Rank d. Henry Murray

37 is defined by Guilford (1959) as any distinguishable, relatively enduring ways in which one individual varies from another. a. Traits b. Types c. States d. Personality

38 RPm Board Exam reflects the materials provided in the table of specification. What aspect of validity is being described? a. Face Validity b. Concurrent Validity c. Content Validity d. Construct Validity

39 all different subgroups within a population is an example of: a. purposive sampling b. random sampling c. incidental sampling d. stratified sampling

40 among of the alternative forms of assessment is most widely used? a. Observation

b. Checklist c. Interview d. Rating Scales

41 first made use of rating scale during the 19th century? a. Francis Galton b. Edward Thorndike c. Wilhelm Wundt d. John B Watson

42 concurrent and criterion predictive validity are established in almost the same manner wherein an external criterion is used to confirm the result of the psychological test. The only difference lies on the: a. Type of test content b. Sample sized c. Number of criterion measures d. Timing of the criterion measure

43 year old Jam has an intelligence score of 63 and academic skills of fourth grade and are unable to live independently. Jam probably: a. Has Down syndrome b. Has savant syndrome c. Is mentally retarded d. Will eventually achieve life-skills

44 you wanted to develop test of musical aptitude among Filipino children, which would be your appropriate norm group? a. Children all over the world b. Filipino children c. Children of musical parents d. Children with known musical ability

45 problem with the interest inventories is that the person often tries to answer the question

b. always involves one IV and two or more DVs c. is a technique that consistently will yield two or more regression lines d. is a technique that consistently will contain more error than simple regression

54 a valid test to measure a certain variable or factor is said to be: a. Content valid b. Construct valid c. Face valid d. Criterion valid

55 test developer observed that in his test, people who were able to answer most of the difficult questions in the test also got the highest scores in the test. It is said that his test items have: a. Good item difficulty index b. Good items c. Good item discrimination index d. Good content validity

56 assessment compasses: a. Case study assessment b. Work sample assessments c. Behavioral assessments d. All of the above

57 scores may be converted to norms: a. so that scores from members of different groups may be evaluated fairly b. all of the above c. none are correct d. so that the scores are more easily interpreted and communicated to others

Among school aged children, as age increases, so do reading skills. This is an example of: a. a negative correlation b. a positive correlation c. a zero correlation d. cannot determine based on the information presented

58 ultimate responsibility for the appropriate test use and interpretation resides in the test: a. Author b. Develop c. User d. Publisher

59 of correlation could also imply something about: a. Association b. Causation c. Description d. Prediction

60 of test means: a. Dependability b. Consistency c. Appropriateness d. Stability

61 college students enrolled in Introductory Psychology as research participants is frequently an example of: a. a coincidental sample b. a random sample c. a stratified sample d. an incidental sample

62 college students enrolled in Introductory Psychology as research participants is frequently an example of: a. a coincidental sample

b. a random sample c. a stratified sample d. an incidental sample

63 test is considered "standardized" if the test includes: a. clearly specified procedures for administration b. all are correct c. clearly specified procedures for scoring d. normative data

64 norms are synonymous with: a. none are correct b. age-derived scores c. age-equivalent scores d. standard scores

65 is to ________ as utility is to ________. a. usefulness; consistency b. usefulness; accuracy c. accuracy; usefulness d. consistency; accuracy

66 "miss rate" is equivalent to: a. the number of incorrect classifications/the selection ratio b. the number of correct classifications/total number of classifications c. the success rate/base rate of successful performance d. the base rate/the selection ratio

67 Angoff method of setting cutting scores relies heavily on ________.

a. both data and emprical findings and the scholarly research literature b. the scholarly research literature c. the judgment of experts d. data and empirical findings

68 of the following statements is FALSE regarding cut scores? a. In multiple hurdle selection, there will be a cut score for each predictor used in the selection process b. The setting of cut scores impact utility though the accuracy of decisions made based on test scores c. An instructor who assigns an “A” to the top 10% of students in a class is using a fixed cut score d. Absolute cut scores are preferred when applicants must demonstrate a minimum level of competence

69 degree to which an additional predictor accounts something about the criterion variable which is left unexplained by other predictors being used is called: a. Predictive Validity b. Concurrent Validity c. Incremental Validity d. Criterion-Related Validity

70 problem with using the known group method of setting cut score is that: a. strong deterrents to test user acceptance of the data are in place

79 to psychological assessment, what is the typical outcome of Psychological testing? a. Comprehensive data from various sources b. Evaluative description of referred behavior c. Test score or series of test scores d. Numerical coefficient of constructs

80 would agree with which statement regarding the relative contribution of learning and heredity to intellectual development? a. 50% is inherited and 50% is learned b. Part is inherited and part is learned, but how much each contributes to intellectual development is debatable c. 20% is inherited and 80% is learned d. 80% is inherited and 20% is learned

81 would agree with which statement regarding the relative contribution of learning and heredity to intellectual development? a. 50% is inherited and 50% is learned b. Part is inherited and part is learned, but how much each contributes to intellectual development is debatable c. 20% is inherited and 80% is learned d. 80% is inherited and 20% is learned

82 would agree with which statement regarding the relative contribution of learning and heredity to intellectual development? a. 50% is inherited and 50% is learned b. Part is inherited and part is learned, but how much each contributes to intellectual development is debatable c. 20% is inherited and 80% is learned d. 80% is inherited and 20% is learned

83 person's IQ test score may be influenced by ________. a. the type of discipline used in the home b. all of the above c. the person's temperament d. the IQ test given

84-analytic theories of intelligence tend to fall into which two camps? a. primary and secondary b. Galtonian and neo-Galtonian c. specific and nonspecific d. unifactor and multifactor

85-analytic theories of intelligence tend to fall into which two camps? a. primary and secondary b. Galtonian and neo-Galtonian c. specific and nonspecific d. unifactor and multifactor

86 which statement would Binet, Wechsler, and Piaget agree? a. environment, not heredity, influences the development of intelligence

b. heredity and environment interact to influence the development of intelligence, although a person has unlimited genetic potential c. heredity, not environment, determines the development of intelligence d. heredity and environment interact to influence the development of intelligence, but a person may not exceed his or her genetic potential

87 which statement would Binet, Wechsler, and Piaget agree? a. environment, not heredity, influences the development of intelligence b. heredity and environment interact to influence the development of intelligence, although a person has unlimited genetic potential c. heredity, not environment, determines the development of intelligence d. heredity and environment interact to influence the development of intelligence, but a person may not exceed his or her genetic potential

88 a school psychologist assesses your child's intelligence and explains that your child's cognitive ability to you in terms of the manner in which she processes information and solves problems. This school psychologist is employing which theory of intelligence?

a. information-processing b. Wechsler's verbal/performance c. Galton's sensory ability

d. multiple-factor-analytic

89's conception of intelligence focused on ________. a. behavioral assets and deficits b. sensory abilities c. environmental factors d. all of the above

90 the scores of the participants of Angel, most of the scores fall in the right side of the distribution. Therefore, we can conclude that:

a. The scores are positively skewed b. The scores are negatively skewed c. The test takers are intelligent d. The test takers have a low IQ

91 stability coefficient is used to express ________. a. IQ in standard score units b. none of the above c. the relative standing of examinees on stability measures d. the degree of consistency between measurement

92 researcher hypothesized that the proportion of the variance that a number of tests have in common accounts for a general factor of intelligence? a. Piaget b. Galton c. Spearman d. Pearson

93 to Piaget, a form of cognitive structure or organization is referred to as: a. a pattern

c. partial free response d. choose-the-ending

1. Self-report can include all but which of the following forms? a. keeping a diary b. reporting one’s own thoughts and feelings c. oral and written responses d. having others tell you about your thoughts and feelings

2. A personality profile represents the extent to which a person has demonstrated certain ____________. a. personality types, states, and traits b. personality traits c. personality types d. personality states

3. In empirical criterion keying, test items are administered to two groups: one comprises people known to exhibit the trait, and the other is a control group. What is the purpose of this method? a. to make certain people with a variety of personalities are represented in the normative sample b. to make certain that a matched standardization group is used c. to increase the size of the sample of Testtakers d. to retain items that discriminate between the two groups

4. What is a likely consequence if a test elicits a variety of opinions about a person depending on who is rating the person?

a. The test will have higher internal consistency b. The test will have lower interrater reliability c. The test will be able to predict outcomes with greater accuracy d. The test will have a lower redundancy coefficient

1. What is a likely consequence if a test elicits a variety of opinions about a person depending on who is rating the person? a. The test will have higher internal consistency b. The test will have lower interrater reliability c. The test will be able to predict outcomes with greater accuracy d. The test will have a lower redundancy coefficient

2. Projective tests are methods of personality assessment. a. Futile b. directive c. indirect d. behavioral

3. Word association tests such as that developed by Jung:

a. are based on the premise that certain key words represent areas of conflict b. are usually based on cognitive theories of personality c. employ normative databases with samples matched to U. census data

d. utilize only “traumatic” stimulus words, in an attempt to diagnose associative disturbances

1. Assessing the reliability of the Rorschach using the split-half method is not considered appropriate because: a. there are too few inkblots to enable interpretation through the split-half method b. each inkblot is considered to have a unique stimulus quality c. stimulus cards are presented twice and possibly three times d. responses by subjects may be too lengthy to adapt to split-half procedures

2. The most widely used picture-story test is the: a. Children’s Apperception Test b. Make-a-Picture Story Method c. Picture Story Test d. Thematic Apperception Test

3. The development of projective tests: a. was virtually ignored by legitimate test developers b. represented a reaction to attempts to assess personality using normative approaches c. was heralded by those employing actuarial prediction as a breakthrough in assessment techniques

d. began only in the past three decades

1. Self-monitoring differs from self-report in that: a. with self monitoring the responses are not recorded b. with self monitoring it is up to the assessee to decide what to report c. with self monitoring the assessee records all the relevant behaviors but reports to the evaluator only the important findings d. with self monitoring behaviors are recorded at the time and place in which they occur

2. The Children’s Apperception Test (CAT) depicts ________ in its pictures. a. monsters b. clouds and trees c. animals d. people

3. Which is the proper flow of stages of Test Development according to Cohen, Swerdlik, & Sturman (2013)? a. Conceptualization-Construction- Try-Out-Analysis-Revision b. Construction-Conceptualization- Analysis-Revision-Try-out c. Conceptualization- Construction-Analysis-Try-out- Revision d. Analysis-Try-out-Revision- Conceptualization-Construction

the client was wearing shorts and a tank top despite the snow and 20-degree weather, would you include this observation in your report? a. Yes, in the presenting problem section b. Yes, in the results section c. Yes, in the behavioral observations section d. No

1. Pertains to the form, plan, structure, arrangement, and layout of test items as well as to related considerations such as time limit. a. Test catalogue b. Test manual c. Format d. Test Construction

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good psychological test item? a. The item is clear in meaning. b. The item is clear in reading. c. The item does not encourage guess work. d. The item is extremely easy to answer.

3. What is the first step in the test construction process? a. Planning b. Writing items for the test c. Preliminary administration of the test d. Checking the reliability of the test

4. Why is pilot testing very important? a. It provides a sound foundation to the test’s reliability

b. It requires a good and substantial number of participants

c. It gives the test developer a view on how the test might be administered, scored, and interpreted in future testing

d. It is necessary to secure that the test is measuring what is supposeto measure

1. Item difficulty refers to the ‘difficulty level’ of each item in the given test, why is it then important to consider in developing a test? a. For the comfort of the test takers, thus contributing to a higher score

b. A good test must have a succeeding difficulty to ease test taking

c. Both a and c

d. Neither a nor b

1. What is the basic premise behind Item Discrimination Index? a. A good test must discriminate between high and low scores

b. Items that do not yield a score among test takers do not contribute to the measurement of the construct

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

1. It refers to the revalidation of a test on a sample of test takers other than those whom test performance was originally found to be a valid prediction of some criterion. a. Cross-validation

b. Co-validation

c. Construct Validation

d. Content Validation

1. During your pilot testing, one of your participants argued that some items are unsuitable and thus refused to complete the test. Which of the following best describe an appropriate to measure to follow? a. Explain to the participants that the test has a high reliability and validity b. Allow the test be unfinished and refer the participants to Assessment Psychologist to enlighten him/her c. Let him be and take into consideration his/her opinions and try to integrate it to the later revision of the test d. Let the participant do as he/she pleases and pay him/her utmost respect for his/her opinion

2. Lea is a Registered Psychometrician and she intends to give her clients battery of projective tests. What educated opinion can you draw from Lea’s intention? a. She can select which ever projective test because they are all reliable and valid b. DAP, TAT, and Rorschach should be part of the battery test

because of their utility and popularity alike c. Seek the opinion of her RPm colleagues which projective tests best fit her client given her client clients’ presented concerns d. She is not allowed to administer, score, and interpret projective tests

1. You are a newly hired psychometrician and you are tasked to give psychological testing to students but you are not familiar to various psychological tests. What should you best do? a. Read the test manual to get acquainted with the test to be administered b. Suggest to the administration to hire psychologist c. Seek the assistance of the senior psychometrician in administering the test d. Administer the test anyhow because the test takers are even more unfamiliar to those tests anyway

2. After the test interpretation, your client refuses to accept the results and insisted that the test is “fake” and it is presenting him in a way that makes him feel uncomfortable. What should be the best course of action then? a. Respect his opinion and let him believe what he wants to; but the test results would remain valid anyhow, with or without his belief and approval of the test result b. Explain that psychological test yield no absolute data but rather only infer sample behavior and

c. internal consistency reliability data d. a description of the test development procedures used

1. The following item appears on an end-of-semester course evaluation in a tests and measurement course: "This course was more work than I thought it would be." The possible responses are: (1) strongly agree; (2) agree; (3) unsure; (4) disagree; (5) strongly disagree. This is an illustration of what type of scaling? a. Ipsative b. Nomothetic c. Guttman d. Likert

2. For a test designed for classroom use, which represents an advantage of using true-false over using multiple-choice items? a. true-false items reduce the chances of guessing by the examinee b. true-false items are easier to write c. true-false items are applicable to a wider range of subject areas d. true-false items achieve acceptable levels of reliability

3. Factor analysis can help the test developer: a. to eliminate or revise items that do not load on the predicted factor b. all are correct c. to identify whether test items appear to be

measuring the same construct d. none are correct

1. Expert panels may be used in the process of test development to: a. serve as expert witnesses in any subsequent litigation b. screen test items for possible bias c. recommend statistical tests of validity d. provide ratings of item reliability

2. Test items that contain alternatives with five points ranging from "strongly agree" to "strongly disagree" employ: a. opinion scaling b. Simmons scaling (not Richard) c. Guttman scaling d. Likert scaling

3. A professor who asks a colleague to regrade a set of essay questions is most likely attempting to address concerns about: a. test-retest reliability b. content validity c. rater reliability d. criterion-related validity

4. In what situation does an item-difficulty index of 1 occur? a. all examinees answer the item incorrectly b. all examinees answer the item correctly c. all examinees evenly respond to

the item correctly and incorrectly d. none are correct

1. Which best describes a "good" test item? a. the item distinguishes high scorers from low scorers b. almost all test-takers respond correctly indicating the item is well written c. the correct answer cannot be guessed d. almost all test-takers respond incorrectly, indicating the item is a challenging item

Which of the following statements is not true about intelligence?

Which of the following is a description of intelligence?

What is the most accurate definition of intelligence?

What are the 4 types of intelligence?