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Reveal the answer to this question whenever you are ready. All Of The Following Are Benefits Of Conflict In Organizations Except ________.A) increased self-evaluation and change B) increased groupthink C) increased creativity and innovation D) increased curiosity among group members E) increased opportunity to air problems Front B) increased groupthink Enter another question to find a notecard: Search About the flashcard:This flashcard is meant to be used for studying, quizzing and learning new information. Many scouting web questions are common questions that are typically seen
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acceptable. You May also Like:[wcp-carousel id="1853"] MGMT 3720 all of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except Organizational Behavior Final Exam Study Guide Ch. 14: Conflict and Negotiation 1) ________ is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about. ∙ Conflict 2) Conservationists have had a perpetual conflict with the government of the United States over the fast and rampant depletion of Earth's natural resources. They argue that the United States must reduce its consumption level significantly to rectify this problem. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conservationists' argument? ∙ The United States accounts for onethird of the total world resource consumption. 3) According to the traditional view of conflict, all conflict is ________. all of the following are characteristic of learning organizations except ________.∙ harmful and must be avoided 4) According to the ________ view of conflict, conflict can be a positive force in a group and some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively. ∙ interactionist 5) According to the interactionist's perspective, a group that functions without conflict is ________. ∙ Prone to becoming static and apathet 6) According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance. ∙ Functional
Don't forget about the age old question of Structural elements of business include what? 7) Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is called ________ conflict. ∙ Task 8) Conflicts related to how the work gets done are called ________ conflicts. all of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except ________.∙ Process 9) Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations? ∙ Women place a lower value on relationship outcomes than men. 10) Mike and Keith are on the same team; they work well with other people in the same team but don't get along with each other. This type of conflict can best be described as ________. ∙ Dyadic 11) In a negotiation between a man and a woman, we would expect the woman to ________ than the man. ∙ Be more accommodating 12) Conflict between two people is called ________ conflict. ∙ Dyadic 13) If you support the idea that conflict should be eliminated, you are supporting which of the following views of conflict? ∙ The traditional view 14) You decide to do more research on the view that conflict should be encouraged as a means to achieve change and innovation. This view is termed ________. ∙ The interactionist view 15) When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group's work should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is known as a ________ conflict. ∙ Process
If you want to learn more check out What is matrices? 16) Matt works as a sales representative at Tandem Industries, which manufactures and sells bicycles. He's the best salesman on the floor, but he also receives the highest number of customer complaints for late deliveries. Which of the following, if true, best explains this situation? ∙ The company keeps inventory levels low in order to reduce costs. 17) Conditions that can create conflicts can be classified into three categories. Which of the following is one of these three categories that includes variables such as jurisdictional clarity, membergoal compatibility, and leadership styles? ∙ Structure 18) Which of the following statements is true regarding conflict? ∙ Diversity of goals among groups is a major source of conflict. 19) Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________. Don't forget about the age old question of
What is the potential capacity to influence others? ∙ Perceived and felt 20) The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it's where conflict issues tend to be defined. ∙ Cognition and personalization 21) ________ is the third stage in the conflict process and it intervenes between people's perceptions and their overt behavior. ∙ Intention 22) The conflicthandling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Cooperativeness indicates the degree to which ________. ∙ One party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns 23) Assertiveness indicates the degree to which ________. ∙ One party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns 24) When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict, that person is using the conflicthandling intention of ________. ∙ Competing 25) ________ is a conflicthandling technique in which the parties in a conflict each desire to satisfy fully the concerns of all parties. ∙ Collaborating 26) The conflicthandling intention of collaborating is ________. ∙ Assertive and cooperative 27) Which of the following conflicthandling intentions is unassertive and uncooperative? ∙ Avoiding Don't forget about the age old question of
What is an example of an approximate integration? 28) The conflicthandling intention of accommodating is ________. ∙ D) unassertive and cooperative 29) Luke's cubicle neighbor Leia, though an understanding and great coworker, talks loudly on the phone. Luke gets annoyed every time Leia's phone rings, but he has decided it's simply not worth the trouble to talk to her about it. Luke's conflicthandling intention is called ________. ∙ Avoiding 30) A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent's interests above his or
her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this conflicthandling intention as ________. ∙ Accommodating Don't forget about the age old question of stores bile lies underneath the liver 31) Macy does not like a few of the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she discussed the items with the team and told them that she realized she was in the minority and that she would adapt the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. This type of conflict handling intention is called ________. ∙ Accommodating We also discuss several other
topics like Why are connective tissues important? 32) Which of the following conflicthandling intentions is assertive and uncooperative? ∙ Competing 33) Which of the following conflicthandling intentions involves accepting a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties' concerns? ∙ Compromising 34) In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible? ∙ Behavior 35) A conflictintensity continuum has "annihilatory conflict" at the upper end and "no conflict" at the lower end. In the context of this conflictintensity continuum, which of the following statements is true of conflict intensities? ∙ Functional conflicts are typically confined to the lower range of the conflictintensity continuum. 36) The division manager at Xperience Inc. wants to replace the SAP ERP currently used in his division with Epicor ERP as it costs 30 percent less to train new staff in Epicor ERP. But this leads to a conflict with the general manager, who insists that they can simply hire only people who already know how to use SAP ERP. Which of the following, if true, weakens the general manager's objection to the replacement of SAP ERP with Epicor ERP? ∙ Experienced users of SAP ERP command much higher salaries than do prospective employees who have no experience in the use of any ERP. 37) According to a newly added office smoking regulation, only employees who have an enclosed office may smoke at their desks. This leads to a major conflict between various employees as virtually all employees with enclosed offices are higherlevel managers and all other employees lack enclosed offices. Therefore, the lowerlevel employees who smoke argue that they should be offered enclosed offices. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the employees' argument? ∙ The smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee's job level. 39) Which of the following conflict management techniques involves designating a critic to purposely argue against the majority positions held by the group? ∙ Appointing a devil's advocate 40) Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________. ∙ Reduces group cohesiveness 41) Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation that takes place in a collectivist culture? ∙ Compared to individualists, collectivists are less likely to see offers from their counterparts as unfair and to reject them. 42) A collectivist Chinese manager is most likely to use which of the following techniques for conflict management? ∙ Avoiding 43) Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources? ∙ Negotiation 44) The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably. ∙ Bargaining 45) The two general approaches to negotiation are ________ bargaining and ________ bargaining. ∙ Distributive; integrative 46) All of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except ________. ∙ increased groupthink 47) ________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a fixed amount of goods or services. ∙ Distributive 48) Karl is the labor union negotiator. Today, he is meeting with the top management to discuss the new fiveyear contract, including wages and benefits. This labormanagement negotiation over wages is most likely to use ________ bargaining. ∙ Distributive 49) In the case of a distributive bargaining, the ________ point indicates what a person would like to achieve out of the negotiation. ∙ Target 50) In case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable—the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement. ∙ Resistance 51) Which of the following statements is true regarding distributive bargaining? ∙ It operates under zerosum conditions. 52) During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the ________ bias. ∙ Anchoring 53) Which of the following statements is true regarding integrative bargaining? ∙ Integrative bargaining focuses on longterm relationships. 54) As both sides agree that they are competing over a fixed amount of resources, each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. Based on this information, we can say that the two sides are engaged in ________. ∙ Distributive bargaining 55) None of the parties involved in the dispute wants to reach a winwin agreement. They are each highly focused on their demands, which they would like to achieve, otherwise known as their ________ points. ∙ Target 56) The management has decided to try to find a winwin solution to help both parties resolve their differences. Management is attempting to engage in ________ bargaining. ∙ Integrative 57) Which of the following is the first step in the negotiation process? ∙ Preparation and planning 58) Your ________ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement. ∙ BATNA 59) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the preparation and planning step? ∙ Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement 60) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands? ∙ Definition of ground rules 61) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the definition of ground rules step? ∙ Determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation 62) Bill is negotiating for the labor union. Today, he is presenting the evidence and papers that demonstrate the average wages in the area, the cost of healthcare for the average worker, and a pie graph demonstrating how these costs affect the new salary request. Which phase of the negotiation process is Bill currently in? ∙ Clarification and justification 63) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties have the actual discussion to hash out an agreement? ∙ Bargaining and problemsolving 64) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is included in the closure and implementation step? ∙ Formalizing the agreement that has been worked out 65) Which of the following is true regarding negotiation outcomes? ∙ Overall agreeableness is weakly related to negotiation outcomes. 66) Stratford Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. The company employs actors and actresses from all over the world. The actors and actresses have joined together to ask the company for higher salaries. The employees are struggling over deciding who will negotiate for them. Which of the following statements is true pertaining to the effect of individual differences on negotiations? ∙ People who are highly interested in having positive relationships with other people are poor negotiators. 67) Xanadu Industries manufactures and sells the same calipers as Utopia Industries. Employee wages account for 35 percent of the cost of manufacturing calipers at both Xanadu Industries and Utopia Industries. Xanadu Industries is seeking a competitive advantage over Utopia Industries. Richard, the manager put in charge of devising a strategy to meet this end, suggests lowering employee wages. This leads to a grave conflict between Richard and the labor union. Which of the following, if true, would suggest that the labor union will accept Richard's suggestion to lower the wages? ∙ Many people who work for manufacturing plants live in areas in which the manufacturing plant is the only source of employment. 68) A(n) ________ is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions for alternatives. ∙ Mediator 69) In which of the following situations is mediation most likely to be effective? ∙ The conflict between the parties involved in mediation is at a moderate level. 70) Which of the following methods of thirdparty negotiation always results in a settlement? ∙ Arbitration 71) What factor would most likely increase the negative impact of an arbitration session? ∙ heavyhandedness of the arbitrator 72) In thirdparty negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) ________. ∙ Conciliator 73) Megatron wants to bring in a neutral third party who will facilitate a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. This person is known as a(n) ________. ∙ Mediator 74) The home buyer wants to bring in a third party who will have the authority to dictate an agreement. This person will be a(n) ________. ∙ Arbitrator 75) The two parties eventually agree to ask Sam Spade, an attorney and trusted friend, to help them informally to solve their problem. Sam's role is that of a(n) ________. ∙ Conciliator 76) The traditional view of conflict recognizes that a minimal level of conflict can help keep a group viable, selfcritical, and creative. ∙ FALSE 77) The interactionist view of conflict proposes that all conflicts are good. ∙ FALSE 78) Open and emotionally stable teams can put task conflict in perspective and focus on how the variance in ideas can help solve the problem rather than letting it degenerate into relationship conflicts. ∙ TRUE 79) Relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. ∙ TRUE 80) Recent research shows that task management among top management teams was negatively associated with their performance, whereas conflict lower in the organization was positively associated with group performance. ∙ FALSE 81) The potential for conflict increases when too much communication takes place. ∙ TRUE 82) Studies exploring the impact of increasing cultural diversity in a workforce found that ethnically diverse groups produce less effective and less feasible ideas as compared to the ideas produced by all Caucasian groups. ∙ FALSE 83) During the behavior stage of the conflict process, the parties decide what the conflict is about. ∙ FALSE 84) The conflicthandling intention of accommodating is assertive and cooperative. ∙ FALSE 85) Supporting someone else's opinion despite your reservations about it is an example of collaborating. ∙ FALSE 86) The conflicthandling intention of compromising involves finding a solution that allows both parties' goals to be completely achieved. ∙ FALSE 87) Collectivists are more interested in demonstrations of concern and working through third parties to resolve disputes, whereas individualists are more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly. ∙ TRUE 88) Negotiation is a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about. ∙ FALSE 89) Distributive bargaining attempts to create a winwin solution for both the parties. ∙ FALSE 90) If the aspiration ranges of two parties overlap, then a settlement range for the conflict exists. ∙ TRUE 91) In terms of intraorganizational behavior, all things being equal, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining. ∙ TRUE 92) Individuals who bargain in teams reach fewer integrative agreements than those who bargain individually. ∙ FALSE 93) Jeff has a reputation for shouting angrily while negotiating. In contrast, Anita is known for her soft spoken agreeable approach to negotiations. Jeff is more likely to get the concessions he wants than Anita. ∙ TRUE 94) A popular stereotype is that men are more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than women. ∙ FALSE 95) In thirdparty negotiations, a conciliator is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent. ∙ TRUE Chapter 15: Foundations of Organizational Structure 1. The term which is used to describe the degree to which tasks in an organization are subdivided into separate jobs is called _____. a. Work specialization 2. Which of the following statements is true regarding work specialization? a. Work specialization decreases the time spent in changing tasks 3. For much of the first half of the twentieth century, managers viewed work specialization as ________. a. An unending source of increased productivity 4. The basis by which jobs are grouped is called ________. a. Departmentalization 5. A plant manager organizes a plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and purchasing into departments. The plant is departmentalized on the basis of ________. a. Function 6. AgriProducers has customers all over the United States that need their soil and crops tested in their labs. The crops and soil are different in the various large areas of the nation, such as the West Coast and the Midwest. Which type of departmentalization would be best for AgriProducers? a. Geographic 7. Procter & Gamble has separate departments for Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of departmentalization by ________. a. Product 8. Wiper Inc., a parts supplier, has separate departments for government aircraft and contracts, large commercial aircraft clients, and small personal aircraft clients. This is an example of departmentalization on the basis of ________. a. Customer 9. The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom is termed ________. a. Chain of command 10. Chain of command is a key element of an organization's structure. Which of the following key questions is addressed by this element? a. To whom do individuals and groups report? 11. Span of control is a key element of an organization's structure. Which of the following key questions is addressed by this element? a. How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct? 12. Which of the following terms refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect them to be obeyed? a. Authority 13. The principle of ________ helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. a. Unity of command 14. According to the principle of unity of command, ________. a. An individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor 15. Which of the following statements, if true, would support the argument favoring increased span of control? a. Mike’s team consists of highly experienced and skilled labor 16. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument favoring increased span of control? a. Performance reports from the last few years show that teams that were monitored closely had higher productivity 17. The ________ refers to the number of subordinates that a manager directs. a. Span of control 18. A ________ is consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees. a. Wider span of control 19. A narrow span of control ________. a. Is expensive because it adds levels of management 20. Anna's company needs to dramatically cut costs, speed decision making, and increase flexibility. Which of the following structural decisions will help her achieve the desired objectives? a. Increasing the span of control 21. Which of the following is a drawback of a narrow span of control? a. It is more expensive 22. The question of span of control determines ________. a. The number of levels and managers in an organization 23. While observing the departments in his division, Gordon notices that some managers with wide spans of control seem to perform more effectively than other managers with similarly sized spans of control. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the high performing managers? a. The employees within their departments are highly skilled and very knowledgeable about their jobs 24. In an organization, top managers make all the decisions and lowerlevel managers merely carry out their directives. This organization is most likely to be characterized by ________. a. A high degree of centralization 25. _______ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. a. Centralization 26. According to a 2011 survey, many workers in Qtopia Inc. are dissatisfied with their jobs. The survey revealed that most of the dissatisfied workers believe that they have very little control over their job assignments. Therefore, to increase workers' job satisfaction, Boris, a production manager, feels they need to only concentrate on changing the dissatisfied workers' beliefs regarding the degree of control they have over their job assignments. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion made by Boris? a. Many dissatisfied workers feel that their wages are too low and working conditions are unsatisfactory 27. The more the lowerlevel personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the ________ within that organization. a. Higher is the degree of decentralization 28. ________ refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized. a. Formalization 29. Elena is the senior manager of a scientific operations team at a wellknown clinical research organization. The organization delivers more than 4,000 solutions across more than 18 therapeutic areas. Being a perfectionist, Elena has reached her present position through hard work and dedication. Given that she has also worked effectively with teams in the past, she has recently been assigned to lead a team working on a new project which is critical to the company. Elena refuses to allocate any tasks to her team and decides to put in extra hours and weekends to complete the groundwork herself. Based on the information presented here, which of the following would best explain this contradiction? a. Elena is reluctant to delegate work as she lacks confidence in her team’s abilities 30. Publishing representatives who call on college professors to inform them of their company's new publications have a great deal of freedom in their jobs. They have only a general sales pitch, which they tailor as needed. Based on this information, we can say that the job of these publishing representatives ________. a. Scores low on the degree of formalization 31. The clerical and editorial employees in a publishing house need to be at their desks by 8:00 AM and follow a set of precise procedures dictated by management. The jobs of these clerical and editorial employees ________. a. Score high on the degree of formalization 32. A ________ is characterized by a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. a. Simple structure 33. The simple structure is most widely practiced in small businesses in which ________. a. The manager and owner are one and the same 34. Mark is the owner of a local shoe business. He has fifteen employees who report directly to him, he makes all the decisions regarding the type and quality of shoes, and he looks after the shop's finances. Which type of organizational structure does Mark have? a. Simple structure 35. Which of the following statements is true about the simple structure? a. It becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows 36. Which of the following is a characteristic of a simple structure? a. High centralization 37. The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is ________. a. Standardization 38. Which of the following statements is true regarding a bureaucracy? a. Bureaucracies can get by with less talented middleand lowerlevel managers 39. Which of the following types of organizational designs combines two forms of departmentalization, functional and product? a. Matrix structure 40. The strength of product departmentalization in the matrix structure is that it facilitates ________. a. Coordination among specialties 41. You extol the virtues and benefits of standardization. You are most likely to be promoting the ________. a. Bureaucracy 42. You explain to your students the structure of a local grocery store situated in your neighborhood. The store employs two fulltime employees, a salesperson and a cashier. The owner of the store acts as its manager and makes all the decisions. Which of the following organizational structures is being described by you? a. Simple structure 43. You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The structure of the committee best meets the definition of the ________ structure. a. Matrix 44. Which of the following statements is true regarding a matrix structure? a. It breaks the unityofcommand concept 45. Which one of the following problems is most likely to occur in a matrix structure? a. employees receiving conflicting directives 46. A ________ organization is a small, core organization that outsources major business functions a. Virtual 47. A virtual organization is also known as a(n) ________ organization. a. Modular 48. You are the CEO of Achilles Incorporation. You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions of your business. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle human resource functions, and a computer firm to handle all records. To keep costs down, you are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations. You have chosen to operate your business as a ________. a. Virtual organization 49. The major advantage of a virtual organization is its ________. a. Flexibility 50. Which of the following statements is true regarding a virtual organization? a. A virtual organization tends to have unclear roles, goals, and responsibilities 51. Which of the following is most likely to be a drawback of a virtual organization? a. Constant flux and reorganization 52. Blastkrieg, a chain of audio equipment stores, uses computerized inventory control and customer selfservice to eliminate the category of sales clerks from its force of employees. After diversifying into computer electronics, it now plans to employ the same concept in selling desktop PCs and laptops. Which of the following is an assumption made in Blastkrieg's strategy? a. Sales personnel are not required for selling computer electronics successfully 53. Who coined the term boundaryless organization? a. Jack Welch 54. A boundaryless organization strives to ________. a. Break down barriers between the company, its customers, and suppliers 55. Odysseus Corp. is attempting to flatten its organizational hierarchy. It is encouraging the use of crosshierarchical teams, participative decisionmaking practices, and 360degree performance appraisals. Based on this information, we can say that Odysseus Corp. is attempting to create a ________ organization. a. Boundaryless 56. A boundaryless organization is most likely to ________. a. Use 360 degree performance appraisals 57. You have recently started your business with a small capital investment. Your business needs a very high degree of flexibility so that you can quickly respond to environmental changes and you are also interested in minimizing costs. Which of the following types of organizations is best suitable for your business? a. A virtual organization 58. You decide to eliminate horizontal, vertical, and external barriers within your organization. You want to operate as a ________ organization. a. Boundaryless 59. Which of the following is a method that companies can use to break down cultural barriers in the global market? a. Form strategic alliances 60. ________ is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by selling off business units, closing locations, or reducing staff. a. Downsizing 61. A(n) ________ model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has highly standardized processes for work, high formalization, and more managerial hierarchy. a. Mechanistic 62. A(n) ________ model is a structure that is flat, uses crosshierarchical and crossfunctional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and relies on participative decision making a. Organic 63. Which of the following is typically a characteristic of an organic model of organization? a. Free flow of information 64. Which of the following is typically a characteristic of the mechanistic model of organization? a. Rigid departmentalization 65. A(n) ________ strategy emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services. a. Innovation 66. Organizations following a(n) ________ strategy try to both minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit, moving into new products or new markets only after innovators have proven their viability. a. Imitation 67. Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of an organization pursuing an innovation strategy? a. Decentralized control 68. Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of an organization pursuing a cost minimization strategy? a. High centralization 69. Which of the following terms refers to the way an organization transfers inputs into outputs? a. Technology 70. What are the key dimensions to any organization's environment? a. Complexity, volatility, and capacity 71. Which of the following dimensions of an environment describes the degree to which the environment can support growth? a. Capacity 72. Volatility refers to the degree of ________ within an environment. a. Instability 73. The ________ of an environment refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements. a. Complexity 74. Work specialization contributes to higher employee productivity, but at the price of ________. a. Reduced job satisfaction 75. Some individuals want work that makes minimal intellectual demands and provides the security of routine; for them, ________ is a source of job satisfaction a. High work specialization 76. Harald is opening a manufacturing plant with a mechanistic and centralized structure. Employees from which of the following countries will be least comfortable with this type of a structure? a. Canada 77. Work specialization increases the time spent in changing tasks. a. False 78. 78) The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom. a. True 79. Narrow spans of control make vertical communication in the organization more complex. a. True 80. Narrow spans of control increase the speed of decision making. a. False 81. In centralized organizations, top managers make all the decisions, and lowerlevel managers merely carry out their directives. a. True 82. As compared to a decentralized organization, a centralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems. a. False 83. Departmentalization refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized. a. False 84. The simple structure is characterized by a high degree of departmentalization and narrow span of control. a. False 85. The simple structure becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows. a. True 86. The organizational design of a simple structure is highly risky. a. True 87. The strength of a bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform standardized activities in a highly efficient manner. a. True 88. A bureaucracy is characterized by decentralized authority and wider spans of control. a. False 89. The matrix structure breaks the unityofcommand concept. a. True 90. The matrix structure reduces the possibility of power struggles. a. False 91. In structural terms, a virtual organization is highly centralized, with little or no departmentalization. a. True 92. A virtual organization lacks flexibility. a. False 93. A boundaryless organization tries to flatten the hierarchy and minimizes status and rank. a. True 94. The goal of a boundaryless organization is to break down cultural barriers. a. True 95. A mechanistic model is similar to a boundaryless organization. a. False 96. The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should be. a. True 97. Managers must take individual differences, such as experience, personality, culture, and the work task, into account to maximize employee performance and satisfaction. a. True Ch. 16: Organizational Culture 1) Manuel is a manager for a manufacturing company in which managers are expected to fully document all decisions and in which it is important to provide detailed data to support any recommendations. Also, outofthebox thinking is dissuaded. Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Manuel's job? ∙ Low risk taking 2) Danny's boss is apathetic as to whether Danny works at home, at the office, or from his beach house. All he cares about is that the project is completed on time, on budget, and with exemplary quality. Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Danny's job? ∙ High outcome orientation 3) Which of the following characteristics of an organization's culture indicates the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization? ∙ People orientation 4) Stability is one of the seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization's culture. It indicates the degree to which ________. ∙ Organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth 5) The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which people are competitive rather than easygoing is termed ________. ∙ Aggressiveness 6) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between organizational culture and job satisfaction? ∙ Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative 7) Porco Rosso, an aircraft manufacturer with a strong presence in the United States, is looking to expand its market overseas. The firm currently sells its aircraft to several airlines in the United Kingdom but now wants to establish manufacturing units there as well in order to acquire a bigger share in the European market. Hence, it plans to merge with QueenAir, a British aircraft manufacturer. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the company's decision to merge with QueenAir? ∙ There is a striking difference in the organizational cultures of the two firms 8) Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization's culture? ∙ A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization’s members. 9) Cultures that tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems or experiences faced by the members in the same department or location are often called ________. ∙ Subcultures 10) Jean works for Fahrenheit Publishing ,which is a publisher of scientific journals. The company is dominated by low risk taking and high attention to detail. Jean's department is committed to high team orientation and provides many teambuilding activities in which Jean and other department members work together and socialize. Which of the following statements best describes Jean's department? ∙ Jean’s department has developed a subculture 11) ________ are indicators of a strong organizational culture. ∙ Widely shared values 12) The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are known as ________. ∙ Core values 13) Which of the following is most likely to result from a strong organizational culture? ∙ Low employee turnover 14) A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it results in ________. ∙ Cohesiveness and organizational commitment 15) A strong culture can act as a substitute for which of the following? ∙ Formalization 16) A culture that expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization's members is known as a(n) ________ culture. ∙ Dominant 17) The organizational culture of Rogue Vogue Corp. is an example of a(n) ________. ∙ Dominant culture 18) Aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking are called the ________ of the culture at the Rogue Vogue Corp. ∙ Core values 19) In addition to the organizational culture at Rogue Vogue Corp, the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. In this example, attention to detail is a part of the ________ of the organization. ∙ Subculture 20) Which of the following statements is true regarding the functions of culture in an organization? ∙ It conveys a sense of identity for organizational members 21) When formal authority and control systems are reduced, the ________ provided by a strong culture ensure(s) that everyone is pointed in the same direction. ∙ Shared meaning 22) In ________ organizations, the lack of frequent facetoface contact makes establishing a common set of norms very difficult. ∙ Virtual 24) Which of the following statements is true regarding the establishment of the organizational culture and its effects on the organization? ∙ Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees. 25) ________ refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization and work environment. ∙ Organizational climate 26) Grace works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals. Often employees, bosses, and hourly workers alike come into the store "off the clock" and spend time training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals, and their jobs. This attitude of her coworkers inspires Grace to do her best. Based on this information, we can say that Grace is experiencing the effects of ________. ∙ Organizational climate 27) A(n) ________ organization is an organization that takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members; it is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces. ∙ Institutionalized 28) Culture is most likely to be a liability when ________. ∙ The organization’s environment are highly skilled 29) Rainbow Corp. hires a new secretary, Polonova, who differs from the vast majority of the company's employees in terms of her ethnicity. The company has a collectivist culture with a culturally diverse workforce and several policies to support the minorities. Yet, after a few weeks, she quits the company. Which of the following, if true, helps explain why she quit? ∙ Polonova has a strong sense of personal ambition and independence 30) The ultimate source of an organization's culture is ________. ∙ Its founders 31) The ________ process helps candidates learn about the organization, and if employees perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, they can remove themselves from the applicant pool. ∙ Selection 32) Which of the following is not one of the five most prevalent climate categories making up the ethical dimensions of organization culture? ∙ Dependence 33) The selection process helps sustain the organization's culture by ________. ∙ Hiring candidates who fit well within the organization 34) Top management has a major impact on the organization's culture by ________. ∙ Establishing norms that filter down through the organization 35) ________ is a process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing organizational culture. ∙ Socialization 36) The process of socialization consists of three stages. Which of the following is one of these three stages? ∙ Metamorphosis 37) Identify the correct order of stages in the socialization process. ∙ Prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis 38) The ________ stage of the socialization process explicitly recognizes that each individual the organization comes across during the selection process has a set of values, attitudes, and expectations about both the work to be done and the organization. ∙ Prearrival 39) During the ________ stage, a new employee compares his or her expectations with the realities in the organization. ∙ Encounter 40) If there is a basic conflict between the individual's expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during the ________ stage of socialization. ∙ Encounter 41) Higgins has recently joined a new law firm expecting to participate in exciting environmental law cases and cuttingedge research. After one month at the firm, he still hasn't been assigned a case and spends most of his time filing standardized appeals for title disputes with insurance companies. In which stage of the socialization process is Higgins? ∙ Encounter 42) During the socialization process, to work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the ________ stage. ∙ Metamorphosis 43) Which of the following statements is true regarding random socialization? ∙ In random socialization involves socializing the newcomers in groups 44) Which of the following types of socialization involves putting the new employee directly into the job, with little or no special attention? ∙ Informal socialization 45) ________ socialization assumes that the newcomer's qualities and qualifications are the necessary ingredients for job success, so these qualities and qualifications are confirmed and supported. ∙ Investiture 46) Which of the following statements is true about formal socialization? ∙ Specific orientation and training programs are examples of formal socialization 47) ________ socialization tries to strip away certain characteristics of the recruit. ∙ Divestiture 48) Apprenticeship is an example of ________ socialization. ∙ Serial 49) By the end of the ________ stage of socialization, the new members internalize and accept the norms of the organization and their work group, are confident in their competence, and feel trusted and valued by their peers. ∙ Metamorphosis 50) The information that you receive during the interviewing and hiring process is a part of the ________ stage of employee socialization. ∙ Prearrival 51) Your first day at work is a part of the ________ stage of socialization. ∙ Encounter 52) When you begin to notice things that are not as you expected, you are in the ________ stage of socialization. ∙ Encounter 53) Which of the following steps could your supervisor take to best help you develop a commitment to your new company? ∙ Encourage you to develop friendship ties with the organization 54) When you start to accept the differences between your expectations and the reality of the organization, you move into the ________ stage of socialization. ∙ Metamorphosis 55) Your supervisor provides you a mentor to help you with your work and guide you. This shows that your supervisor is using a(n) ________ socialization technique. ∙ Serial 56) ________ typically contain narratives about the organization's founders, rule breaking, and reactions to past mistakes. ∙ Stories 57) Bruce is new at Wayne Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the corporation started the business in his garage with only $4,000 and one client. This information was most likely transmitted to Bruce by way of ________. ∙ Stories 58) Company chants are examples of ________. ∙ Rituals 59) Company chants are used to ________. ∙ Transmit company culture to employees 60) Which of the following can act as a common denominator to unite members of a given culture or subculture? ∙ Bureaucratic organizational structure 61) Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This informality conveys to employees that Alcoa values ________. ∙ Equality Ask Socrates Inc. is a computer software company that employs highly intelligent, but somewhat unusual people. Every Friday, free lollipops, toys, or other treats are given out to encourage employees to remember how creative they were when they were children. All the new members of the organization are told about the founders who were three young people who "got lucky" and sold a video game that they invented. The employees are allowed to dress informally and can set their own working hours. 62) Which of the following is most likely to be used by Ask Socrates Inc. to inform its new employees about its founders? ∙ Stories 63) The regular distribution of lollipops, toys, or treats every Friday is an example of a ________ that helps reinforce Ask Socrates' culture. ∙ Ritual 64) Ask Socrates Inc. employees are allowed to dress informally. This is an example of a ________ through which organizational culture is transmitted. ∙ Material symbol 65) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members is one that ________. ∙ Balances the rights of multiple stakeholders 66) In which of the following climates do managers operate under the expectation that their decisions will positively affect the greatest number of stakeholders? ∙ Caring 67) Pam works for a corporation that recently fired three top managers who were caught using the company credit cards to lavishly furnish their offices and even purchase "office" furniture that was found in their personal homes. Which method of maintaining an ethical culture is Pam's company pursuing? ∙ Visibly punish unethical acts 68) A positive organizational culture emphasizes ________. ∙ Individual vitality and growth 69) Larry has an employee who is amazing at clearly seeing rules and enforcing them. He has recently promoted her to the lead position in quality assurance. Which method of creating a positive organizational culture is Larry utilizing? ∙ Building on employee strengths 70) Patricia is a team leader. When looking at an email from one of her team members, Patricia noticed that the email was sent at ninethirty in the evening. The next day she personally went to the employee's cubicle and told him how much she appreciated him staying late to get the project to the client on time. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Patricia utilizing? ∙ Rewarding more than punishing 71) Liz is the lead editor for a small, city newspaper. One of her advertising sales representatives is pulling in a lot of restaurant clients. Liz realizes that the representative is quite knowledgeable about food and speaks quite elegantly when describing different dishes. She has begun discussing with the representative the possibility of collaborating with a writer to include a weekly restaurant review that includes the representative on the byline. After the first couple of reviews, the representative is able to increase ad sizes and sales. He is very happy with his new job diversification. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Liz utilizing? ∙ Emphasizing individual vitality and growth 72) Organizations that promote a spiritual culture ________. ∙ Recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work 73) Which of the following terms refers to the recognition that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community? ∙ Workplace spirituality 74) How can U.S. managers be culturally sensitive? ∙ By listening more 75) ArtIsUs claims to be a spiritual organization. Company employees are encouraged to show kindness toward others. Employees are treated with esteem and value and supported for their creativity and flexibility. While the organization values profits, its purpose is to spread the pleasure of art to as many people as possible. Which of the following is not one of the cultural characteristics commonly found in spiritual organizations? ∙ Competitiveness 76) Which of the following statements is true regarding effects of national culture on organizational culture and ethical behavior within organization? ∙ Generally, U.S. managers see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical. 77) Aggressiveness is one of the seven primary characteristics of organizational culture that capture the essence of an organization's culture. It indicates the degree to which employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks. ∙ FALSE 78) Attention to detail is a primary characteristic of an organization's culture that indicates the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve them. ∙ FALSE 79) Individuals with different backgrounds or at different levels in the organization will tend to describe the organization's culture in similar terms. ∙ TRUE 80) Subcultures act to undermine the dominant culture. ∙ FALSE 81) A dominant culture expresses the core values a majority of members share and that give the organization its distinct personality. ∙ TRUE 82) A strong culture tends to reduce employee turnover. ∙ TRUE 83) The stronger an organization's culture, the more management should be concerned with developing formal rules and regulations to guide employee behavior. ∙ FALSE 84) Instrumental climates are positively associated with employee job satisfaction and organizational commitment. ∙ FALSE 85) Culture facilitates commitment to something larger than individual selfinterest. ∙ TRUE Ch. 17: Human Resources and Policies and Practices Review questions: 1. Which of the following is most likely to be used for preliminary “rough cuts” do decide whether an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job? a. Application form 2. Charlie Woods started working for EZ Freeze, a major frozen food company, as a college intern. Most recently, Charlie had held the position of VP Marketing. Now however, as a result of a change in corporate leadership, Charlie finds himself unemployed for the first time in decades. Looking for a new job has been an eyeopening experience for Charlie. He has been especially frustrated with his lack of success in getting even a call back for the applications he has completed online. Which of the following best describes why Charlie may not be getting the initial feedback he thinks he should be receiving? a. His online applications don’t have the right keywords 3. Stefan is looking for a job. Today he went to the Web site of Qriosity Inc., where he filled out an online application and attached a copy of his resume. In which part of the selection process is Stefan? a. Initial selection 4. Which of the following is most likely to be an initial selection device? a. Background check 5. Which of the following is a form of background check? a. Letters of recommendation 6. During a selection process, the ________ selection stage immediately follows the initial selection stage. a. Substantive 7. Between the late 1960s and the mid1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were characterized as ________. a. Discriminatory 8. Which of the following have/has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that include cognitively complex tasks? a. Intelligence tests 9. Written tests are used during the ________ stage of the selection process. a. Substantive 10. Performancesimulation tests have higher ________, which measures whether applicants perceive the measures to be accurate. a. Face validity 11. Elaborate sets of performancesimulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a candidate's managerial potential are ________. a. Administered in assessment centers 12. Assessment centers are typically used to evaluate a candidate's ________ potential. a. Managerial 13. Which of the following tends to have a disproportionate amount of influence on employee selection decisions? a. Interview 14. Applicants describe how they handled specific problems and situations in previous jobs in a(n) ________ interview. a. Behavioral structured 15. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding behavioral structured interviews? a. They increase the effectiveness of the interview technique 16. The behavioral structured interview is built on the assumption that ______. a. Past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior 17. Which of the following is not an ideal feature of a benefit program? a. It should clearly outline expectations for conduct 18. Which of the following is most likely to be used by Scarlett during the initial selection stage to check if an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job? a. Application form 19. In order to assess the management skills of the applicants, Scarlet should ________. a. Use an assessment center 20. Which of the following is a common contingent selection method? a. Drug test 21. Drug testing is controversial. Which of the following is an argument used against drug testing? a. Drug use is a private matter 22. Due to the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act, job applicants a. May be required to undergo a medical examination after they receive a contingent offer 23. Which of the following statements is true concerning international selection practices? a. The use of educational qualifications in screening candidates seems to be a universal practice 24. Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee’s ____ skills. a. Technical 25. By training employees on how to be better listeners, organizations attempt to improve their ________ skills. a. Interpersonal 26. Lewis is a sales representative for his company. He is attending a company training program about the types of expenses that are considered legal deductions for tax purposes and how to distinguish between personal expenses and business expenses. Lewis is attending training to improve his ________ skills. a. Ethical 27. Your organization is situated in an urban area where many students do not finish high school. You will probably first have to address the skill category termed ________ skills. a. Basic 28. Your organization has reduced layers, flattening the organization. Your employees now need to perform a wider variety of tasks. As a result, you need to provide employees with training to help develop their ________ skills. a. Technical 29. You are introducing selfmanaged teams and implementing qualitymanagement programs. It would be important to conduct training in ________ skills. a. Problemsolving 30. Dunder Mifflin Inc. is considering implementing employee ethics training programs. Some members of senior management are opposed to these programs. Their opposition is most likely based on which of the following beliefs? a. Individual value systems are fixed at an early age. 31. ________ training involves employees helping each other out at the workplace in an unplanned and unstructured environment. a. Informal 32. Which of the following is an onthejob training method? a. Apprenticeships 33. Which of the following is an offthejob training method? a. Internet courses 34. Which of the following is most likely to be the fastest growing training medium? a. Etraining 35. You have just been appointed as director of your company's corporate training division. The CEO of your company has been displeased with your company's prior training programs, so you are tasked with rehauling the entire training division. You convene a meeting of all training division managers to decide on the types of training that the division will implement. One of your managers is a firm supporter of etraining programs for employees in your company's international offices. He touts the benefits of eprograms by stressing that ________. a. Etraining is highly flexible and employees can compete the training at their convenience 36. Researchers now recognize three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work. Which of the following are these three major types of behavior? a. Task performance, citizenship, counterproductivity 37. Treating coworkers with respect, making constructive suggestions, and saying positive things about the workplace are a part of the ________ behavior that constitutes performance at work. a. Citizenship 38. ________ refers to actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the organization, such as helping others when not required. a. Citizenship 39. Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the company's decision? a. Several top performing entry level employees have received offers from rival companies. 40. Which of the following, if true, will weaken the company's decision? a. The majority of the company’s employees have only a basic level of education 41. Which of the following terms refers to the actions that actively damage the organization, including stealing, behaving aggressively toward coworkers, and being late or absent? a. Counterproductivity 42. Performance evaluations are used to ________. a. Help management make HR decisions 43. Which of the following is the least productive set of criteria used to evaluate employees? a. Traits 44. The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact with an employee (everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers) is termed ________. a. 360degree evaluation 45. Which performance evaluation method requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete? a. Written essays 46. Which of the following evaluation methods focuses the evaluator's attention on those behaviors that are key to executing a job effectively? a. Critical incident 47. If a manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation, then ________. a. The focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors 48. Which of the following methods of performance evaluation allows for quantitative analysis and comparison? a. Graphic rating scale 49. When an appraiser rates employees based on items on a continuum with the points reflecting actual behaviors on a given job, this type of evaluation is called ________. a. BARS 50. ________ involves evaluating one's performance against the performance of one or more others. a. Forced comparison 51. ________ ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification, such as top onefifth or second onefifth. a. Group order 52. Which approach to performance evaluation rankorders employees from best to worst? a. Individual ranking 53. hich of the following performance evaluation methods is often used in recommending students to graduate schools? a. Group order ranking 54. Which of the following is a forced comparison method of performance evaluation? a. Group order ranking 55. Jeeves Consulting requires a performance evaluation method that is less time consuming to develop and administer and allows for quantitative analysis and comparison. An appropriate evaluation technique for Jeeves Consulting would be ________. a. Graphic rating scales 56. The concept of ________ can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly. a. Due process 57. Marcel hates the annual review process he has to do for the employees in his department. Although he is fully aware of some of his employees' faults, he is reluctant to discuss them in person, and is only comfortable writing them in an unsigned report that his supervisor will review. Marcel's behavior demonstrates ________. a. Fear of confrontation 58. Companies in which of the following countries would emphasize formal performance evaluation systems more than informal systems? a. United states 59. Formal performance appraisals are used more frequently in countries that ________. a. Are low in ingroup collectivism 60. Worklife conflicts became noticeable in the 1980s when ________. a. Women with dependent children, started entering the workforce 61. Which of the following statements regarding downsizing is true? a. Organizations that are able to demonstrate fairness are more likely to make the hopedforgains from downsizing. 62. Which of the following is one of the techniques used by organizations to make their workplace more familyfriendly? a. Telecommuting 63. Ozu Tech offers employees 4 unpaid weeks sabbatical, or 3 to 6 partially paid weeks off for familyrelated reasons. This worklife initiative offered by Ozu Tech is a type of ________. a. Time based strategy 64. Biozone provides its employees career counseling, skills workshops, and networking sessions. This worklife initiative used by Biozone falls under the category of ________. a. Information based strategies 65. Which of the following worklife initiatives is an example of a culturechange strategy? a. Tying manager pay to employee satisfaction 66. Which of the following worklife initiatives is a direct service? a. Onsite child care 67. The goal of initial selection is to determine the most qualified applicants from among those who meet basic qualifications. a. False 68. Letters of recommendation are a form of background check. a. True 69. Substantive selection methods are the heart of the selection process and include written tests, performance tests, and interviews. a. True 70. A test that measures factors such as dependability, carefulness, responsibility, and honesty is referred to as a task variability test. a. False 71. Performancesimulation tests have lower face validity (which measures whether applicants perceive the measures to be accurate) than written tests. a. False 72. In assessment centers, candidates are evaluated as they go through several days of exercises that simulate real problems they would confront on the job. a. True 73. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, firms cannot require employees to pass a medical exam before or after a job offer is made. a. False 74. Technical training has become increasingly important because of changes in organizational design. a. True 75. Most formal training involves employees simply helping each other out. a. False 76. The most popular offthejob training method is live classroom lectures. a. True 77. A formal mentoring program is an example of an offthejob training method. a. False 78. Performance evaluations identify training and development needs. a. True 79. Individual traits are the strongest performance evaluation criteria. a. False 80. The 360degree appraisal method takes into consideration feedback from coworkers, customers, and subordinates. a. True 81. The critical incidents method of performance evaluation focuses the evaluator's attention on the difference between executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively. a. True 82. Graphic rating scales are less time consuming to develop and administer and allow for quantitative analysis and comparison. a. True 83. The group order ranking method of performance evaluation combines major elements from the critical incident and graphic rating scale approaches. a. False 84. As the number of evaluators increases, the probability of attaining more accurate information increases. a. True 85. Appraisers should be as close as possible in organizational level to the individual being evaluated. a. True 86. Due process systems provide individuals with adequate notice of what is expected of them. a. True 87. The performance review should be designed more as a counseling activity than as a judgment process. a. True 88. Time pressures are the primary problem underlying worklife conflicts. a. False Chapter 18 Organizational Change and Stress Management (Q bank not available) 1. Contrast planned and unplanned change. a. Change i. Making things different b. Planned change i. Change activities that are intentional and goal oriented ii. There are two goals of planned change: 1. Improve the ability of the organization to adapt to changes in its environment. 2. Change employee behavior c. Change agents i. Persons who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing change activities d. Forces for change i. Nature of workforce ii. Technology iii. Economic shocks iv. Competition v. Social trends vi. World politics 2. Describe the sources of resistance to change a. Individual sources i. Habit ii. Security iii. Economic factors iv. Fear of the unknown v. Selective information processing b. Organizational sources i. Structural inertia ii. Limited focus of change iii. Group inertia iv. Threat to expertise v. Threat to established power relationships c. Overcoming Resistance to Change i. Education and communication ii. Participation iii. Building support and commitment iv. Develop positive relationships v. Implementing changes fairly vi. Manipulation and cooptation vii. Selecting people who accept change viii. Coercion d. The politics of change i. Change threatens the status quo, making it an inherently political activity. ii. Politics suggests the impetus for change is more likely to come from: 1. Outside change agents 2. Employees new to the organization who have less invested in the status quo. 3. Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change a. Lewin’s ThreeStep Change Model i. Unfreezing Movement Refreezing b. Unfreezing i. Changing to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity c. Movement i. A change process that transforms the organization form the status quo to a desired end state d. Refreezing i. Stabilizing a change intervention by balancing driving and restraining forces e. Driving forces i. Forces that direct behavior away from the status quo. f. Restraining forces i. Forces that hinder movement from the existing equilibrium. 4. Demonstrate two ways of creating a culture for change a. Innovation i. New idea applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service b. Sources of innovation i. Structural variables are the most studied potential source of innovation 1. Organic structures positively influence innovation 2. Long tenure in management is associated with innovation 3. Innovation is nurtured when there are slack resources 4. Interunit communication is high in innovative organizations c. Creating a Learning Organization i. Learning organization 1. An organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change 5. Identify potential sources of stress a. Stress i. An unpleasant psychological process that occurs in response to environmental pressures b. Challenge stressors i. Stressors associated with workload, pressure to complete tasks, and time urgency c. Hindrance stressors i. Stressors that keep you from reaching your goals d. Potential sources of stress i. Environmental factors ii. Individual differences iii. Cultural differences 6. Identify the consequences of stress a. Physiological symptoms b. Psychological symptoms c. Behavioral symptoms 7. Contrast the individual and organizational approaches to managing stress a. Individual approaches i. An employee can take personal responsibility for reducing stress levels. ii. Individual strategies include: 1. Timemanagement techniques 2. Increased physical exercise 3. Relaxation training 4. Expanded social support networks b. Redesign of jobs i. Redesigning jobs to give employees more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy, and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities. c. Increased employee involvement d. Corporate wellness programs i. Organizationally supported programs that focus on the employee’s total physical and mental condition How does conflict benefit an organization?Healthy conflict allows for more creativity, stronger ideas and more engaged employees. Debates, competition and industry disruption are all examples of healthy conflict that can lead to fresh perspectives and growth for a business.
Why conflict is important?Conflict can be very healthy. It increases awareness of problems that exist and provides a reason for finding a better way forward. When conflict is valued it encourages an environment where change is seen as positive – a way of making things better.
Under what circumstances is conflict beneficial?Positive conflict is constructive in nature. It produces new ideas, solves continuous problems, provides an opportunity for people and teams to expand their skills, and fosters creativity. When opposing ideas are explored, a breakthrough of thinking can occur.
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All of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except ________.
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